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Spanish also has the velar nasal in words like mango, tango, an the like.
That's such a common allophone of /n/ that it isn't worth mentioning for individual languages. Just a note that /n/ is frequently velar before a velar stop, with some exceptions, like Korean.
kwami 20:43, 2005 Jun 13 (UTC)
Velarlessness
Found an even better example of a freak language without velars than Xavante. Check it out:
Vanimo :D
The article about
velarization needs some help, and I think the best way to help it would be to merge it with this article. Its contents are pretty technical, and the technical information seems as if it would have a better home here. --
Roman à clef (
talk) 19:07, 28 March 2011 (UTC)reply
Strongly agree that the two should be merged. After five years of existence, the total progress on the
velarization article is a tiny amount of information and citations to the same authors. It would, however, make an excellent subsection of
Velar consonant.
Guy Macon (
talk) 23:39, 28 March 2011 (UTC)reply
Velarized (secondary articulation) is not velar (primary articulation). I agree the article doesn't include much (and indeed is unlikely to ever reach similar length as
palatalization), but a better merge site might be
secondary articulation, itself also a fairly short article. --
Trɔpʏliʊm •
blah 20:42, 29 March 2011 (UTC)reply
Sounds reasonable. I struck my comments above. I think it should be merged with something, but I don't have enough background knowledge to have an informed opinion as to what should be merged with what.
Guy Macon (
talk) 00:08, 30 March 2011 (UTC)reply
Of course, [ɡ] does not occur in languages that lack voiced stops, like Mandarin Chinese
was inserted by @
Kwamikagami: on 29 October 2008. This puzzles me because I think g, d, b are all common in Mandarin. Our article
Mandarin Chinese#Initials bears this out.
Loraof (
talk) 00:41, 28 June 2016 (UTC)reply
@
Loraof:Pinyin has the graphemes (basically letters) <b>, <d>, <g>, but Mandarin does not have the sounds [b] (as in bed), [d] (as in dad), and [g] (as in get) as distinct from [p] (as in sped), [t] (as in still), and [k] (as in skill). Mandarin, on the other hand distinguishes [pʰ] (as in pin), [tʰ] (as in top), and [kʰ] (as in can or kill) from [p], [t], and [k]. --
JorisvS (
talk) 18:49, 28 June 2016 (UTC)reply
Actually, my claim was not very accurate. [g] occurs as an allophone of /k/ in atonic syllables. Saying /g/ does not occur is meaningless, since phonemes are only defined within a language where they occur, so I don't know how to reword. —
kwami (
talk) 22:12, 28 June 2016 (UTC)reply