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I am a bit puzzled by the exact meaning of these sentences : "For some women, discrimination comes in the form of obscurity, such as keeping Black women out of the public eye. For pornography and sex work, these women are often shrouded with a veil of hyper sexuality, or otherwise not at all."
What does this mean ? That Black women are not sufficiently employed in the sex industry ("out of the public eye") ?? Notwithstanding the oddity of such an idea, that is certainly far from the case (quite a lot of sex workers happen to be Black, or to belong to other ethnic minorities). Or, on the contrary, does it mean that "hypersexualizing" them (as in the case of prostitutes, porn actresses, etc) is discrimination per se ? If they are hypersexualized, how can they be "out of the public eye" (which a porn star certainly isn't, at least until he/she leaves porn) ?
Moreover, since all people working in the sex industries are "hypersexualized", why mention specifically "Black women" ? All sex workers (porn stars, prostitutes, female, male, black, white, asian, heterosexual, gay, etc) are "hypersexualized" because that is their job. You may argue that hypersexualizing them leads to social discrimination, but that concerns everyone in the sex industry. Has the source been misquoted ? Jean-Jacques Georges ( talk) 12:34, 11 October 2017 (UTC)