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Many changes were made to this article which effectively treat the term affine transformation as though it were the same as dilation. However, this is wrong: a dilation is only one particular type of affine transformation. Rotations, shearing, etc are all examples of affine transformations that aren't dilations.
The notion that all affine transformations are dilations is not supported by the source given, which is Coxeter 1969 (which calls dilations "dilatations"). You can see quite clearly in section 13.3, which is called affinities, at the bottom of page 202, that Coxeter says quite clearly: "A dilatation is a special case of an affinity, which is any transformation (of the whole affine plane onto itself) preserving collinearity." He then goes onto mention other affinities that aren't dilations, such as shears and reflections.
This means that many statements in this article are incorrect, such as the one in the opening paragraph "For every pair of line segments AB and A'B' in the affine plane, there is a dilation mapping the first to the second." This is again not what the cited source (Coxeter 1969 again) says: the actual statement on the page cited is "two given segments, AB and A'B', on parallel lines, determine a unique dilatation AB -> A'B'." The important thing is that the two segments lie on parallel lines. If they don't, then there's no dilation that's going to rotate one line segment into the other. If the condition that both segments lie on parallel lines is dropped, then the corresponding statement is not true in general for affine transformations: there are infinitely many affine transformations that map a line segment to itself. The correct corresponding statement is given on page 203, which is that two triangles IXY and I'X'Y' uniquely determine an affine transformation.
Note also that wolfram has separate pages for dilation and affine transformation which define the two terms correctly.
Additionally, I find this new picture to be =extremely= confusing, and much more so than the old one. It's much more jargon-y, focuses specifically on dilations, and defines some unnecessary stuff in the blurb (like a central dilation vs a translation). I also didn't find it clear that the affine transformation was taking the old triangle to the new one; it looked like the transformation was supposed to be applied to all lines shown at once. However, I do agree the old blurb ought to be made more informative, so I've changed that.
In the middle of my typing this, I note that user Gene Smith has reverted the page as well. I'm going to go through his revert and Rgdboer's latest version and merge some things to try and come up with the optimal revision.
And lastly, although I believe these edits were done in good faith - please, make sure you understand the precise nature of the claims being made by the cited source before editing the page! Math pages are hard to do right on Wikipedia, and I felt the page on affine transformations was one of the better ones. If anything it needed to be made a bit less technical, perhaps.
Battaglia01 ( talk) 22:30, 28 September 2012 (UTC)
In the section on the Mathematical Definition, I don't know the meaning of, or how to say, the symbol following the equals sign. I have looked at numerous lists of math symbols, including the unicode blocks for math and for "letterlike" symbols and can't find it anywhere. Since its part of a graphic, I can't select it to copy and paste in a search. Of course it may be there and I'm just not seeing it. Nevertheless, I think a common language transcription, as if the expression were being spoken, ought to be provided. (I think that ought to be the policy for all maths in wikipedia. I'm not just picking on this one equation. I know doing that will mar the beauty of the concise math displayed. But how can anyone be expected to follow the math if they can't even *read* it? But I know this is not the place for that discussion.) Could someone please name that symbol for me?
Baon ( talk) 15:10, 3 October 2012 (UTC)
I looked at the source and discovered the symbol is called 'varphi'. The entry on phi discusses this as a font variety associated with older fonts, and suggests that a stroked phi ought to always be used in mathematics... but I do not feel comfortable making a change here because I do not know if there are historical reasons or traditions for using this "loopy" form of phi. Baon ( talk) 15:57, 4 October 2012 (UTC)
The top paragraph states that an affine transformation is one which satisfies two conditions: It preserves (i) collinearity and (ii) ratios between distances between collinear points. I would have expected (i) alone to suffice, and (ii) to be a consequence of (i) like the property that parallel lines are mapped to parallel lines. If it does not, then it would be very interesting to see a counterexample.
Or is it perhaps the case that (i) suffices for invertible transformations, but not in general? That would also be interesting to have stated explicitly, if true. 130.239.234.45 ( talk) 17:01, 16 October 2012 (UTC)
This article is completely incomprehensible to a non-mathematician. Could we try beginning in English? The purpose of an encyclopedia, such as this one ...
I recently received top grades in college calculus. I am currently working in computer graphics as a consumer of the methods others write that implement this math. If this is not within my realm of comprehension, for whom is it written? MartinRinehart ( talk) 18:18, 30 August 2013 (UTC)
Please add information about how this applies to aligning two separate images so that they can be optimally superimposed, particularly map layers. And information about available tools.- 71.174.188.32 ( talk) 13:05, 22 October 2015 (UTC)
For completeness, the "Image transformation" section needs an example of a matrix and diagram for "translation."— Anita5192 ( talk) 19:56, 10 November 2017 (UTC)
I may be being very stupid here, but is there not a mistake in the following phrase in the introduction?
"...every affine transformation is of the form ..."
It seems to me that the mapping should be from y not x, and so should read:
"...every affine transformation is of the form "
I came across a stunning equation that allows to solve the inverse problem -- find affine mapping, when its action on vertices of a triangle are known. The post I read is this one https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3224534/673024 , but there are links to the original works where the equation appears for the first time. Is it a good idea to add something from there to this article? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 94.153.230.50 ( talk) 09:34, 13 May 2019 (UTC)
I feel like this page could do a better job explaining exactly what subgroups are and aren't included. The intro section does say "Examples of affine transformations include translation, scaling, homothety, similarity, reflection, rotation, shear mapping, and compositions of them in any combination and sequence.", which is good, but then it gets confusing with "Viewing an affine space as the complement of a hyperplane at infinity of a projective space, the affine transformations are the projective transformations of that projective space that leave the hyperplane at infinity invariant, restricted to the complement of that hyperplane." which, while correct, is confusing since thinking about homogeneous transformation matrices, affine transformations are exactly the ones that don't involve projection (that is, that have a bottom row of [0, ..., 0, 1]). —Ben FrantzDale ( talk) 13:13, 16 November 2021 (UTC)
the dimension of any affine subspaces. Thus no projection can be an affine transformation, and this is not useful to add a further warning. Also, as the lead does not mention any matrix, mentioning a bottom row is very confusing. D.Lazard ( talk) 17:28, 16 November 2021 (UTC)
It's written
This is not in agreement with the definition given at the beginning of the article, as an "automorphism" and "a function which maps an affine space onto itself". At least if m = 0, the image of such a function is a single point. But even for m different from 0, in how does it map the real line onto itself? Yes, the image (range, for Texans) equals R, but that is also true for g(x) = x^3, which clearly isn't an affine function. So, does it mean that their graph is a different 1-dimensional affine subspace of R²? But then it is no more an automorphism which means that it should map the space onto itself. In either case its contradictory. — MFH: Talk 23:55, 1 December 2022 (UTC)